? to docs/researchers: reflecting on someone's pos

? to docs/researchers: reflecting on someone's post that vyrologix is this century's penicillin: is there a way that a virus could mutate so that it is no longer susceptible to the kind of interventions Vyrologix causes? Could a virus (or other disease mechanisms) sidestep anything involving CCR-5? Or is that a necessary process and there's no getting around it? Apologies for inept phrasing--hope you understand what I'm getting at -- just as bacteria have mutated to get around penicillin, could this happen to vyrologix? Thanks.