So how does that work exactly? If filing keeps th

So how does that work exactly? If filing keeps the noteholders at bay, as you say, and the noteholders still exist, as per the most recent PR about satisfying the noteholders (debt) until July, shouldn't he have filed as part of reassurance to them? And yet... no filing? So filing is NOT a requirement to noteholders to satisfy them that their debt in the short term is a worthwhile investment, is it? In fact, TPAC would have collapsed under the weight of all that debt if it were based on filing to satisfy those noteholders. And yet, no such thing is occurring.

How do you explain that?

JonnyBGood