Just compare the number of placebo participants which progressed to hospitalization of both trials (Merck and Pfizer).
I think the numbers were like 7% (Merck) and 14% (Pfizer). One would assume the numbers would be approx. the same. Pfizer was much better in selecting locations and patients, or had a better trial design (exclusions). What would be the Pfizer number (currently 90%), when both trials had the same population?
btw. as I understood, only unvaxxed people were allowed in the trial, why was that? Makes absolute sense, when in the western world ~75% are vaccinated ...
Are there any real journalists out there, or are they all in the pockets of Pfizer nowadays?