From a safety standpoint makes sense they would want data from both trials. From an efficacy standpoint mono vs combo data does not make sense to me. My question is why did FDA not tell us in advance that they wanted the data from mono trial too? Or did leadership misinterpret the ask from FDA? Maybe FDA changed their mind? BTW, I am trying to educate myself on the science of it all. But my mind glazes over after about 5 minutes of reading or listening about. So any factual correction of my posts is very welcomed.