I guess it is semantics when it comes to COR and their clientele. COR could have made their clients pay them back for fronting the bill to DTCC.

DTCC was dealing with COR, so said hey, you owe this because of the dividend.

I am confused on how this all works out for the dividend. If COR's clients held onto the shares, would they have been entitled to the dividend? Next question, did they receive the dividend and therefore that is why they had to pay that amount?

Next scenario, If we sold our shares to someone else before the ex date, would we have had to pay the new person who bought the shares the amount of dividend money we would have expected even if we never received the dividend?

That is where I am confused. And if anyone can shed light on my questions/scenarios, please lead me to pasture.

I do not think CRGP is playing it smart at all. I think they look very guilty, and did commit a fraud on COR. Otherwise I think they would have responded to the court.

Regardless of all this, I am hoping that everyone keeps their dividend. We are innocent. No one was thinking they were getting something they didn't deserve.