Thanks. So being that I probably won't get an answ
Post# of 45510
Thanks. So being that I probably won't get an answer from Steve. Do you or anyone else think there must be a typo in the Q? It states converted shares at a market value of .0002...I think that's one to many 0's. If not it would be really nice to know why such a heavy discount was given and if future convrsions will be subject to a discount at such a rate.