Is there a major difference in clinical efficacy b

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Is there a major difference in clinical efficacy between 85 and 90% occupancy or is that just your theoretical postulation.

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Maraviroc 43% efficacy, leronlimab at 700mg 91% efficacy. Even with leronlimab alone you can see the effect of rising dosage and increased efficacy.

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Are you aware that in vitro mav binds with a higher affinity than LL and has the ability to displace LL off the receptor?

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But we aren't talking about in vitro or binding affinity of leronlimab vs. maraviroc. We're talking about receptor occupancy and the actual ability to block ligands or not.

Dr. Patterson, don't you have a busy enough schedule that you should be doing other things than posting here?