Maybe I don't understand the rules but what does 3

Maybe I don't understand the rules but what does 3 separate days with the price hitting .0001 automatically cause the notes to convert at .00005? Is there some rule and if so please provide.

Not that common sense has any bearing on anything but it would seem like the calculation, using hypothetical numbers, would look more like:

if 10,000,000 shares traded at .0002 = $2,000
and 1,000,000 shares traded at .0001 = $100
equals $2,100 divided by 11,000,000 shares for an average price per share of .0001909

multiply the average price by 50% and you get .00009545
divide the $45,000 (not including interest) by .00009545
and you get 471,451,021 shares.

But why would they convert now and crash the price? If they are thinking about their best chance to recover their money, they will wait until the share price recovers before conversion. According to the most recent financial statements they still have $85,000 that can convert in March and April of 2020. I am probably wrong, but even if SB doesn't pay off the 12/1 convertible debt, I think they wait to convert. If they try to sell 500 million, or by your calculation a billion shares, it would decrease their chance of ever recovering their other $85,000. Of course this is all my opinion, whatever that is worth...