I'm looking for some rational explanation on this.
Post# of 148190
Did they file this as they think soon they will go over .50c and they want the warrant holders to sell with a profit to exercise their .50c.
Or, why else would they do this?
I don't understand the numbers, here.
Or maybe the warrant holder wanted to buy more, and asked to removed restriction prior to doing so. But why would they need to do so. Limited resources?