This question is going to betray my ignorance but

This question is going to betray my ignorance but oh well... When SB said he was 99% done with LAM was that misinterpreted by people? In my mind there are two separate actions 1)issue the shares to LAM and 2)LAM sells shares. So what I'm wondering is... Once all shares are issued to LAM isn't ONCI clear of it's liability to LAM? And if nearly all the shares were handed over to LAM wouldn't SB be correct to say nearly done? And then of course LAM sells but that's not really on Steve is it?