I don't think this is a valid example. The dollar
Post# of 72440
But here's how it's possible:
1) There was a buyer for 18000@$0.0079.
2) A MM decided he wanted to sell him shares at that price (the price prior to the trade may have been higher or lower).
3) The MM did not have the shares so he sold them short with the intent to get them back or not.
The result of that scenario is 100% short volume with either a decreasing or increasing price (depending on the price prior to that trade). Anything can happen on such a small amount of money with no trading volume.