To address one of the misinformed posters on IHUB, kicks69: A reverse split is NOT a form of dilution. It is a proportional change in the total number of shares available, with no change in the % ownership of the company. It is simply taking ten individual $1 bills and handing you a $10 bill. THAT'S IT.
Now I'll ask - does anyone else think that a R/S is dilutive?