If my reading of the form 4/A is correct, Barry c

If my reading of the form 4/A is correct, Barry converted B shares to common shares. There is no indication that any shares were sold. That would require another form 4 disclosure. Someone please correct me if I'm wrong.

I have never seen a Coates insider sell any converted B shares. That would require a form 4 disclosure. It would also be a no confidence indicator worse than dilution and a catalyst for a drop in the SP.

Assuming my premise is correct, the question is why did he convert his B shares if he is not intent on selling them? Just asking.