WOWWWW!.....in response to djponder's claims of fi
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Posted On: 01/26/2017 8:07:13 AM
WOWWWW!.....in response to djponder's claims of filing fraud and covering up of notes payable this post was deleted and labeled off-topic......again! This time without the option to even review it
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Nice try,.......As of the filings for June 2016 there were notes payable in the amount of $80,500 in promissory and convertible notes with incurred interest of $10,066. $80,500 is not a huge number for a company who is currently expanding their business into several positions, and entering into new markets for the sales of new products.
As of the third quarter filings for September 30 2016. There are no current liabilities. There are no notes payable but of course the since two numbers on seperate lines look similar it is to be assumed book keeping mischief is happening. When in fact, is it possible; that all the notes have been paid or converted already at this time and thus the notes payable was erased as the the total liability has also been erased from the balance sheet? And if notes payable were used to purchase new equipment or such, would it be out of the question that the fixed assets would take the place of the notes payable to reflect the payment and thus ownership of such fixed assets? I believe so, imo.
This post was followed up quickly by VF with a simple math rebuttal to my post. C u next Tuesday!
"This deletion was either removed by an Admin or has already been reviewed by an Admin."
This is the message in question:
Nice try,.......As of the filings for June 2016 there were notes payable in the amount of $80,500 in promissory and convertible notes with incurred interest of $10,066. $80,500 is not a huge number for a company who is currently expanding their business into several positions, and entering into new markets for the sales of new products.
As of the third quarter filings for September 30 2016. There are no current liabilities. There are no notes payable but of course the since two numbers on seperate lines look similar it is to be assumed book keeping mischief is happening. When in fact, is it possible; that all the notes have been paid or converted already at this time and thus the notes payable was erased as the the total liability has also been erased from the balance sheet? And if notes payable were used to purchase new equipment or such, would it be out of the question that the fixed assets would take the place of the notes payable to reflect the payment and thus ownership of such fixed assets? I believe so, imo.
This post was followed up quickly by VF with a simple math rebuttal to my post. C u next Tuesday!
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