IPPS=internal price per share. I think something y

IPPS=internal price per share. I think something you folks are overlooking is the ideals behind MRVB and EIA. The way I'm understanding their function is to create money. This would eliminate the need for any kind of loan type financing altogether. Correct me if I'm wrong. At this point, all and any loan dollars would be directly deposited into free cash flow to help stabilize IPPS. Reason being, the company has shifted expenditures to those signing LA and SLA contracts. The need for on hand capital has been greatly reduced according to timeline. I'm pretty sure .01 is highly feasible without any type of borrowing. So the quorum is pretty unsubstantial at this point. Of course, this is only my personal opinion!