In fairness for all does anyone know hte actual reason why the Aquinas deal fell through ?
I'm certain Bull has given his opinion via the many PM's going around. I pray you are not basing this solely on what he said.
Is there a possibilty of 1 %, for the sake of an argument that Bull is incorrecto ?
If you have proof of why the deal fell through share with all via a link to your source.
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