Not the most qualified to answer this, but I'll gi

Not the most qualified to answer this, but I'll give it a shot. How it "appears" depends on your cost basis method used for taxes (first in first out, last in first out, etc.). Ultimately, if you sell what you consider to be your 0.08 cent shares for .034 and then immediately buy the same quantity again at .034 then you're only losing on commissions. Commissions aside you would be in no different financial state in the long run. HOWEVER, for tax purposes, perhaps you would be inclined to sell now "at a loss" so that you can write it off on your taxes. Keep in mind that since you'll be buying those shares right back, that you'll still owe those taxes in a future year.

Somebody correct me if I'm wrong, and Oilfield let me know if that answered your question of if you were talking about something entirely different!