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Posted On: 04/07/2025 5:36:22 PM
Post# of 151892
Question, Ohm: Why is it that our prior studies always/repeatedly seem to be underdosed?
Our molecule generated no SAE's on over a thousand AIDS patients, so why did we dose other patients with 350/500 instead of the full-boat 700?
What reason would the FDA give - or our own people at Cytodyn, if it was their decision - to give partial doses?
Our molecule generated no SAE's on over a thousand AIDS patients, so why did we dose other patients with 350/500 instead of the full-boat 700?
What reason would the FDA give - or our own people at Cytodyn, if it was their decision - to give partial doses?
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