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Posted On: 07/16/2024 4:19:03 PM
Post# of 155057
Ohm wrote,
I thought double allele and single allele deletions were only (respectively) 1% and 9% of the European population, and therefore would be even less than that in the U.S. Why would the FDA forbid an exclusion of a fairly small percentage of the population?
Quote:
For best possible trial outcome both single allele and double allele deletions should be excluded but the FDA might frown upon that.
I thought double allele and single allele deletions were only (respectively) 1% and 9% of the European population, and therefore would be even less than that in the U.S. Why would the FDA forbid an exclusion of a fairly small percentage of the population?
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