i dont know. I know that the offerings i am in were a share price that was a bit below current at the time, with warrants that were maybe 50% above the offering and more that the current price at time. I just know that if i wanted to buy warrants on my offers im in i would sell shares i bought at say 0.50 for current 0.16 to purchase warrants at 1.00. So i would recognize a loss, but really not be able to capitalize because of wash rules and lower my overall share count? Why would i sell shares to buy warrants instead of just buying shares on the market for the lower cost?

I'm in 3 separate offerings (not paulsen) that it makes no sense to buy my warrants because they are all above the current stock price. i could buy more shares on the open market for less cost, let alone sell shares to finance buying warrants. I thought the whole intent of warrants was to induce purchase of stock at a lower price than market for cash flow to the company.

I must be missing something or there is some high level college math i'm not grasping. Maybe these warrants and price offerings are different than the ones i am in?

Im sure there is some method here that traders and money guys are doing that i dont understand and takes advantage of simpletons like me who desire to buy low, sell high.