(Total Views: 317)
Posted On: 02/24/2020 7:17:30 PM
Post# of 36541
The whole definition of ex-date is the first day that buyers are not entitled to the dividend, with the price of the stock adjusted for the dividend. I would say that if the price is adjusted first thing tomorrow morning, there is no way they can give the dividend to buyers (via due bill).
I think the PR announcement was just an error. With all the confusion over the last 4 months, this ranks pretty low on the totem pole to me! I'm just thrilled that the dividend is being paid - I had no intention of selling the shares either way, so it really doesn't matter to me.
BTW, looking back through the posts this morning, thanks TC for the info on cash accounts not allowed to lend shares (I already knew that IRA/Roths could not lend shares). I've never signed a margin agreement, so I'm assuming my account is cash only and therefore they can't borrow my shares.
I think the PR announcement was just an error. With all the confusion over the last 4 months, this ranks pretty low on the totem pole to me! I'm just thrilled that the dividend is being paid - I had no intention of selling the shares either way, so it really doesn't matter to me.
BTW, looking back through the posts this morning, thanks TC for the info on cash accounts not allowed to lend shares (I already knew that IRA/Roths could not lend shares). I've never signed a margin agreement, so I'm assuming my account is cash only and therefore they can't borrow my shares.
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