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Posted On: 11/09/2019 7:55:19 AM
Post# of 154850
Misiu,
It is a good question, te answer might lie in the fact that when a person is infected, te viral load rises rapidly and then, 6-12 weeks after infection, the immune response reduces the viral load to a steady level (set point). Actually the onset of the set point is at around 10 weeks.
Therefore, if a drug fails at week 10 the body's immunological system is now taking control (not the drug) showing that the drug is not longer helping, and showing on the viral load markers.
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&...yUhbCcVULW
Please see slide 7 in the ppt presentation the red line (start of clinical latency is app. 10 weeks) in the link (BTW a good tutorial on principles of Viral Load monitoring).
I am NOT a doctor, so please forgive my innocence in trying to understand.
You all enjoy the weekend !!!
Quote:
Well , I do have a questions here , first I really don't understand what is a reason that we reporting 0-10 weeks results , and then second results >10 weeks ...
I spoke with some friends who used to work in pharma and they said sometimes it is done this way...I still don't understand why , but it is done .....
It is a good question, te answer might lie in the fact that when a person is infected, te viral load rises rapidly and then, 6-12 weeks after infection, the immune response reduces the viral load to a steady level (set point). Actually the onset of the set point is at around 10 weeks.
Therefore, if a drug fails at week 10 the body's immunological system is now taking control (not the drug) showing that the drug is not longer helping, and showing on the viral load markers.
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&...yUhbCcVULW
Please see slide 7 in the ppt presentation the red line (start of clinical latency is app. 10 weeks) in the link (BTW a good tutorial on principles of Viral Load monitoring).
I am NOT a doctor, so please forgive my innocence in trying to understand.
You all enjoy the weekend !!!
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