(Total Views: 226)
Posted On: 08/27/2019 3:29:48 PM
Post# of 36568
I'm confused because Joe said "..have no human capital in the dividend".
So, if they have to pay the dividend to the buyer how does it make sense to sell?
Post History:
gd4nthing:
Not waiting for the dividend makes no sense to me, so what if there are some sellers that could not wait because of a margin call in other stocks (we did have a very rough market last week).
MMPJOE:
You seem to forget the waivers for the dividend, so those who waived outside the float have no human capital in the dividend
gd4nthing:
I'm so confused...so the paragraph below does not apply to "certain" shareholders with a waiver agreement? The word "any" implies all to me.
"...If any shareholder with a waiver agreement sells stock between now and the pay date, the dividend will go to the buyer of their stock, a pay-due bill will be attached to the stock and the seller will be solely responsible for covering the dividend on the pay date; Generex will not pay the pay-due bill."
tc2000chartreader:
I believe the noteholders signed documents saying they would not sell their converted shares, therefore their shares will not received the dividend from the company. Now if they sell, they will be responsible to buy shares on the open market to provide to the buyer who thinks they are getting a dividend. So Joe is trying to scare them into not selling, and telling them why they should not sell.
So, if they have to pay the dividend to the buyer how does it make sense to sell?
Post History:
gd4nthing:
Not waiting for the dividend makes no sense to me, so what if there are some sellers that could not wait because of a margin call in other stocks (we did have a very rough market last week).
MMPJOE:
You seem to forget the waivers for the dividend, so those who waived outside the float have no human capital in the dividend
gd4nthing:
I'm so confused...so the paragraph below does not apply to "certain" shareholders with a waiver agreement? The word "any" implies all to me.
"...If any shareholder with a waiver agreement sells stock between now and the pay date, the dividend will go to the buyer of their stock, a pay-due bill will be attached to the stock and the seller will be solely responsible for covering the dividend on the pay date; Generex will not pay the pay-due bill."
tc2000chartreader:
I believe the noteholders signed documents saying they would not sell their converted shares, therefore their shares will not received the dividend from the company. Now if they sell, they will be responsible to buy shares on the open market to provide to the buyer who thinks they are getting a dividend. So Joe is trying to scare them into not selling, and telling them why they should not sell.
(0)
(0)
