Thank you for the clarification on the Finra rule 4320. Several of us are somewhat new to trading still and do not understand certain aspects of short selling. I am in agreement with your post and logically thinking, when a share price falls greatly with absolutely no catalyst whatsoever, it would seem to me that short selling manipulation WOULD be the main reason. Especially, when after the price falls drastically over a few days the price rises back up in a matter of a similar amount of days (again without a catalyst). It also seems to me that if someone wanted to argue the point and claim dilution were a factor instead of short selling, then the price would fall from the dilution and hover at the new lower price instead of rise back up reaching an all new high of day.