I've wondered that myself. I don't know why the lender would want to sell so many shares now when it has so much promise over the next few months. Wouldn't it make sense for them to hold and then sell as the price moves up. They must have confidence in the Co. or they would not have entered into the lending agreement. Are we sure it is the lenders who are selling?
I am not familiar with the level 2 quotes which makes it hard to tell.