I still can't get over/understand replies like this. Do people actually think that when there is a 1:100 R/S that the cost per share stays the same or something? What am I missing? Seriously not trying to be facetious, I just don't get the confusion or concern. I've never been part of a R/S where the cost per share didn't go up the exact reciprocal amount. (i.e using today's closing price: 100 times less number of shares at $2.19). Please enlighten me.