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Posted On: 05/08/2017 4:50:45 PM
Post# of 41414
To address one of the misinformed posters on IHUB, kicks69: A reverse split is NOT a form of dilution. It is a proportional change in the total number of shares available, with no change in the % ownership of the company. It is simply taking ten individual $1 bills and handing you a $10 bill. THAT'S IT.
Now I'll ask - does anyone else think that a R/S is dilutive?
Now I'll ask - does anyone else think that a R/S is dilutive?
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