Posted On: 07/13/2016 8:53:05 AM
Post# of 15187
Even more ridiculous looking, to a judge ,with that example
should be-how can a company pay off that amount of debt, when the pps
is that low?(.0002) and how did the price get there?(Via manipulation
from the same lender himself to get more shares at a 45% discount.
One can argue the 45% rate on stock conversion is criminal too.
So, the lender is getting 45% interest in stock and 80% on late fees.
double dipping while causing both to occur....collusion...HMMMM
The only way a company could conceivably pay off any debt conversion
would be of the PPS was substantially higher and maintained a high pps.
Impossible to do with the shorters working with lenders.
The court/judge has to keep in mind that the very premise of conversion
is because a company needs cash and has little cash flow to begin with.
Thus will never beat the dilution. Basically, this is a back alley deal with
a loan-shark.....with pitfalls in the contract to continually get blood from
a stone.
TS
should be-how can a company pay off that amount of debt, when the pps
is that low?(.0002) and how did the price get there?(Via manipulation
from the same lender himself to get more shares at a 45% discount.
One can argue the 45% rate on stock conversion is criminal too.
So, the lender is getting 45% interest in stock and 80% on late fees.
double dipping while causing both to occur....collusion...HMMMM
The only way a company could conceivably pay off any debt conversion
would be of the PPS was substantially higher and maintained a high pps.
Impossible to do with the shorters working with lenders.
The court/judge has to keep in mind that the very premise of conversion
is because a company needs cash and has little cash flow to begin with.
Thus will never beat the dilution. Basically, this is a back alley deal with
a loan-shark.....with pitfalls in the contract to continually get blood from
a stone.
TS
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